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The Consumption Capital Asset Pricing Model (C-CAPM)

Authors
Affiliations
Johns Hopkins University
Econ-ARK
Johns Hopkins University
Econ-ARK

Consider a representative agent solving the joint consumption and portfolio allocation problem:

v(mt)=maxu(ct)+Et[n=1βnu(ct+n)]s.t.mt+1=(mtct)R~t+1+yt+1R~t+1=i=1mωt,iRt+1,i+(1i=1mωt,i)R\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \vFunc(\mRat_{t}) & = \max \uFunc(c_{t}) + \Ex_{t}\left[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \Discount^{n} \uFunc(c_{t+n}) \right] \\ & \text{s.t.} \\ \mRat_{t+1} & = (\mRat_{t}-c_{t})\Rport_{t+1} + y_{t+1} \\ \Rport_{t+1} & = \sum_{i=1}^{m}\omega_{t,i}\Risky_{t+1,i}+\left(1-\sum_{i=1}^{m} \omega_{t,i}\right)\Rfree \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

where R\Rfree denotes the return on a perfectly riskless asset and Rt+1,i\Risky_{t+1,i} denotes the return on asset ii between periods tt and t+1t+1, ωt,i\omega_{t,i} is the share of end-of-period savings invested in asset ii, and R~t+1\Rport_{t+1} is the portfolio-weighted rate of return, and yt+1y_{t+1} is noncapital income in period t+1t+1.

As usual, the objective can be rewritten in recursive form:

v(mt)=max{ct,ω1,t,ω2,t,}u(ct)+βEt[v(R~t+1(mtct)+yt+1)]\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \vFunc(\mRat_{t}) & = \max_{\{c_{t},\omega_{1,t},\omega_{2,t},\ldots\}} \uFunc(c_{t}) +\beta \Ex_{t}\left[\vFunc(\Rport_{t+1}(\mRat_{t}-c_{t})+{y}_{t+1})\right] \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

The first order condition with respect to ctc_{t} is

u(ct)=βEt[R~t+1v(mt+1)].\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \uFunc^{\prime}(c_{t}) & = \beta \Ex_{t}[\Rport_{t+1}\vFunc^{\prime}({m}_{t+1})]. \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

and the FOC with respect to ωt,i\omega_{t,i} is

Et[(Rt+1,iR)v(mt+1)]=0\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \Ex_{t}[(\Risky_{t+1,i}-\Rfree)\vFunc^{\prime}({m}_{t+1})] & = 0 \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

But the usual logic of the Envelope theorem tells us that

u(ct+1)=v(mt+1),\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \uFunc^{\prime}(c_{t+1}) & = \vFunc^{\prime}(\mRat_{t+1}), \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

so, substituting (5) into (3) and (4) we have

u(ct)=Et[βR~t+1u(ct+1)]Et[(Rt+1,iR)u(ct+1)]=0.\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \uFunc^{\prime}(c_{t}) & = \Ex_{t}\left[\beta \Rport_{t+1} \uFunc^{\prime}({c}_{t+1})\right] \\ \Ex_{t}[(\Risky_{t+1,i}-\Rfree)\uFunc^{\prime}({c}_{t+1})] & = 0 . \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

Now assume CRRA utility, u(c)c1ρ/(1ρ)\uFunc(c) \equiv c^{1-\rho}/(1-\rho) and divide both sides of (6) by ctρc_{t}^{-\rho} to get

Et[(ct+1/ct)ρ(Rt+1,iR)]=0\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \Ex_{t}[(c_{t+1}/c_{t})^{-\rho}(\Risky_{t+1,i}-\Rfree)] & = 0 \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

We can now follow the same steps as in the “Equity Premium Puzzle” section to obtain the relation that for every asset ii

Et[Rt+1,i]Rρcovt(Δlogct+1,Rt+1,i)1ρEt[Δlogct+1]ρcovt(Δlogct+1,Rt+1,i)\begin{gathered}\begin{aligned} \Ex_{t}[\Risky_{t+1,i}]-\Rfree & \approx \frac{\rho \text{cov}_{t}(\Delta \log {c}_{t+1},\Risky_{t+1,i})}{1-\rho \Ex_{t}[ \Delta \log {c}_{t+1}]} \\ & \approx \rho \text{cov}_{t}(\Delta \log {c}_{t+1},\Risky_{t+1,i}) \end{aligned}\end{gathered}

What does this imply about asset pricing?

Consider an asset for which the return covaries positively with consumption, cov(Rt+1,i,Δlogct+1)>0\mbox{cov}(\Risky_{t+1,i},\Delta \log c_{t+1}) > 0. For such an asset, the marginal utility will negatively covary with the return. Thus the expected return must be higher for an asset that “does well” when consumption is high. But for a given average stream of dividends or payouts, if the average return is high, the average price must be low. Thus this indicates that prices should be low for assets whose payoffs are procyclical, and high for assets whose payoffs are countercyclical.